Multiple-choice answers - Education Essay Example
Q 3) Light microscopes
Ans - Multiple-choice answers introduction. D) use light and glass lenses to magnify an image.
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Q 4) Whicch are of the following statements is true about electron microscopes?
Ans. A) Electron beams are focused to create magnified image of an object.
Q 5) A scientist wants to magnify a pollen grains 8,000 times and examine the ridges and pores on its surface. Which see of the following instruments would be best?
Ans. D) A scanning light microscope
Q 6) A scientist wants to examine living cells lining the respiratory tract to determine how the cells use tiny hairs to move dirt and mucus away front the lungs. Which one of the following instruments would be best and why?
Ans. D) A scanning electron microscope, because it can reveal structures on cell surfaces.
Q 7) A scanning electron microscope is used so study ________, whereas a transmission electron microscope is used to study __________
Ans. D) Internal cell structures ………….cell surfaces
Q 9) The diameter of most animal and plant cells ranges from
Ans. B) 0.1 to 1.0 microns.
14) Which one of the following is not found in prokaryotic cells?
Ans. A) A membrane-bound nucleus
16) The nucleoid region of prokaryotic cells
Ans. B) separates the RNA from the cytoplasm.
17) Cells that luck a membrane-bound nucleus are — cells.
Ans. C) Prokaryotic
18) You are sold that the cells on a microscope slide are plant, animal, or bacterial. You look at thesis through a microscope and see cell walls and membrane-bound organelles. You conclude that the cells
Ans. A) Are plant cells.
20) Which one of the following statements about cellular metabolism is false? Cellular metabolism
Ans. C) can involve the synthesis of steroid hormones
21) The membranous compartmentalization of a cell
Ans. C) requires the presence of a cell wall.
22) In eukaryotic cells, internal membranes
Ans. E) All of the choices are correct.
23) The nucleus of a cell
Ans. D) contains DNA.
24) Long fibers of DNA and proteins are called a
Ans. A) Chromatin.
25) During cell reproduction, chromatin fibers coil up into structures called
Ans. D) chromosomes.
30) The cells that produce hair contains a lot of————- The cells that produce the oils that coat the hair contain a lot of——
Ans. A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum—–lysosomes.
33) The Golgi apparatus
Ans. D) forms fats from glycerols and fatty acids.
34) Which one of the following statements is false? The Golgi apparatus
Ans. E) sorts molecules according to their destination.
Ans. E) All of the choices are correct.
40) Contractile vacuoles
Ans. D) allow organisms to avoid dehydration by absorbing water from the environment
42) Which of the following is not a component of the endomembrane system?
Ans. A) Mysosomes
43) Insulin is a protein that is produced by pancreatic cells and secreted into the bloodstreams. Which of the following choices best describes the route of insulin from its production to its exit from the cell?
Ans. D) rough ER, transport vesicles, cell membrane
45) The function of chloroplasts is
Ans. D) photosynthesis.
46) The function of mitochondria is
Ans. A) cellular respiration.
47) The——- of a mitochondria is/are an adaptation that increases the surface area and enhances a mitochondria’s ability to produce ATP.
Ans. B) grana
48) Cyanide inhibits mitochondria’s function; as a result the rate of
Ans. B) ATP synthesis would decrease.
49) Mitochondria differ from chloroplasts in that mitochondria
Ans. C) Contain membrane folds called cristae, whereas chloroplasts contain dislike vesicles in stacks called grana.
53) A drug that interferes with microtubule formation is likely to completely disrupt
Ans. E) the movements of sperm cells.
54) Cilia differ from flagella in that
Ans. D) cilia are typically more numerous and shorter than flagella.
57) A woman is having trouble becoming pregnant. Examination of her partner’s sperm indicates that dynein arms are missing from the flagella in his sperm cells. A physician explains that this could interfere with fertility by
Ans. B) preventing the sperm from swimming to the egg cell.
58) Which one of the following statements about plant cell walls is false?
Ans. E) Wood is primarily composed of plant cell walls.
61) Most animal cells are
Ans. B) Attached to each other via plasmodesmata.
64) Which of the following cell structures is not associated with the breakdown of harmful substances or substances that are no longer needed by the cell?
Ans. E) All of the choices play a role in these functions.
65) All cells on Earth
Ans. E) All of the choices are correct
1) One centimeter = ———-millimeters.
Ans. C) 10
2) A bacterial cells DNA is found in its
Ans. B) nucleus.
3) Archaea are composed of_________ cells.
Ans. B) prokaryotic
4) Which of these is not a compound of the endomembrane system?
Ans. E) Golgi apparatus
1) Which of the following energy transfers is/are possible in living systems?
Ans. E)All of the choices arc correct.
2) Which one of the following processes is endergonic?
Ans. A) The burning of wood
3) What is the basic difference between exergonic and endergonic reactions?
Ans. D)) Exergonic reactions release energy; endergonic reactions absorb it.
4) Which one of the following statements concerning energy is false?
Ans. E) during photosynthesis, plants convert kinetic energy into chemical energy.
5) The transfer of a phosphate group to a molecule or compound is called
Ans C) phosphorylation.
6) When a cell uses chemical energy to perform work, it couples a(s) __________ reaction with a(n)———— reaction.
Ans. B) endergonic—– exergonic
6) ATP can be used as the cell’s energy because
Ans. B) ATP is the most energy-rich small molecule in the cell.
7) An energy burner
Ans. A)is the amount of energy that must be produced by the reactants to start a chemical reaction.
8) Most of cells enzymes are
Ans. B) proteins.
9) When an enzyme catalyses a reaction.
Ans. A) it lowers the activation energy of the reaction.
10) The active site of an enzyme is
Ans. B) the highly changeable portion of an enzyme that adapts to fit the substrates of various reactions.
11) Which one of the following is false?
Ans. D) Enzymes emerge unchanged from the reactions they catalyze.
12) Which one of the following is true?
Ans. B) An enzymes function is unaffected by changes in pH.
13) Which of the following substances could be a cofactor?
Ans. C) a zinc atom
14) A child is brought to the hospital with a fever of 107 F. Doctors immediately order an ice bath to lower the child’s temperature. Which explanation offers the most logical reason for this action?
Ans. A) Elevated body temperature will increase reaction rates in the child’s cells and overload the limited number of enzymes found in the cell.
15) Heating inactivates enzymes by
Ans. D) changing the enzymes three-dimensional shape.
16) Which of the following is a coenzyme?
Ans B) vitamin B6
17) Which of the following can affect the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?
Ans. E) All of the choices are correct.
18) A medical research team is concerned about the outbreak of a new disease in humans. The bacteria that cause the disease resemble bacteria that cause a similar disease in cattle. The bovine disease is treated with a drug that inhibits a bacterial enzyme crucial to bacterial cell division. As the researchers prepare to test the drug in humans, they will
Ans. A) be fairly confident about its safety; bacterial enzymes are all very different from human enzymes, so the drug should only affect the bacteria.
319) Where are eukaryotic cell enzymes typically located?
Ans. B) inside organelles
34) Plasma membranes are selectively permeable. This means that
Ans. B) plasma membrane allows some substances to enter or leave a cell more easily than others.
35) Which one of the following is not a function of the plasma membrane? The plasma membrane
Ans. D) is the control center of the cell.
37) Membrane phospholipids
A) Have hydrophobic heads that faces the center of the membrane and are shielded from water.
40) The cholesterol associated with cell membranes
Ans. A) is attached to membrane proteins and extends into the watery environment surrounding the cell.
43) Most of the functions of a cell membrane are performed by
Ans C) phospholipids.
44) Which one of the following is not a function of membrane protein? Membrane proteins
Ans. A) serve as enzymes
45) Relaying a message from a membrane receptor to a molecule that performs a specific function within a cell is called
Ans. A) signal transduction.
46) Which of the following is not a true statement about diffusion? Diffusion
Ans. C) requires no input of energy into the system.
49) The molecules responsible for membrane transport are
Ans. C) phospholipids.
50) Osmosis can be defined as
Ans. D) the diffusion of a solute,
51) When two aqueous solutions that differ in solute concentration are placed on either side of a semipermeable membrane, and osmosis is allowed to take place, the water will
Ans. A) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower water concentration.
52) In lab, you use a special balloon that is permeable to water but sot sucrose to make an “artificial cell” The balloon is fiIled with a solution 20% sucrose and 80% water and is immersed in beaker containing a solution of 40% sucrose and 60% water.. Which of the following will occur?
Ans. A) Water will leave the balloon.
58) You are adrift in the Atlantic Ocean, and, being thirsty, drink the surrounding seawater. As a result,
Ans. B) your cells lyse, due to the excessive intake of salt
59) Which one of the following processes could result in the movement of a substance into a cell, if the substance is more concentrated in the cell than in the surrounding?
Ans. A) Active transport
64) The act of a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is
Ans. D) phagocytosis.
65) Phagocytosis is to eating as pinocyosis is to
Ans. B) drinking.
66) Cells acquire LDLs by
Ans. C) receptor-mediated- endocytosis.
67) An inherited lack (or shortage) of functional LDL, receptor causes
Ans. C) hypercholesterolemia.
68) The ultimate source of nearly all energy available to life on Earth is
Ans. E) sunlight
69) Ultimately, nearly all animals are dependent on——– as their source of energy.
Ans D) cellular respiration
1) ln the reaction A…B+C+heat
Ans B) the potential energy of the products is greater than that of the reactant.
2) The energy required to initiate an exergonic reaction is called
Ans E) the energy of activation.
4) Substrates bind to an enzyme’s ___________ site.
Ans. E) active
5) The interior of the phospholipid bilayer is
Ans. D) hydrophilic.
6) Oxygen crosses a plasma membrane by
Ans C) active transport.
8) Which of these processes can move a solute against its concentration gradient?
Ans. D) facilitated diffusion
1) The creation of offspring carrying genetic information from just a single parent is called
Ans. B) sexual reproduction.
2) Which one of the following is a difference between sexual arid asexual reproduction?
Ans. D) Sexual reproduction is more likely to increase genetic variation than is sexual reproduction.
3) Strictly speaking, the phrase “like begets like” refers to
Ans. B) sexual reproduction only,
4) With the exceptions of identical twins, siblings who have the same two biological parents are likely to look similar but not identical, to each other because they have
Ans. E). similar but not identical combination of genes.
5) Virchow’s simple and profound principle, stated formally in 1853, was that
Ans. E) All life evolves,
6) Which one of the following is false? Cell division
Ans. D) is the basis of both sexual and asexual reproduction.
7) Which one of the following is false?
Ans. B) Most prokaryotes reproduce by binary fission
8) Sister chromatids are
Ans. A) found right after a cell divides.
10) Prior to mitosis, each chromosome of a eukaryotic cell consists of a pair of identical structures called
Ans. B) sister chromosomes,
12) Eukaryotic cells spend most of their cell cycle in which phase?
Ans. A) interphase
13) The process by which the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell divides to produce two cells is called
Ans B) cytokinesis
16) Looking into your microscope you spot an unusual cell. Instead of the typical rounded cell shape, the cell has a very narrow middle separating two bulging ends. It sort of looks like the number 8 Then you realize, this is a cell
Ans. E) that is about to undergo mitosis.
18) During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up on a plane located equidistant from the two spindle poles?
Ans .C) metaphase
23) Which of the following must occur for a plant or animal to grow and develop normally?
Ans. B) It must be able to control the timing and rate of cell division in different parts of its body.
24) When animal cells are grown in a petri dish, they typically stop dividing once they have formed a single, unbroken layer on the bottom of the dish, This arrest of division is an example of
Ans. D) cell division repression.
26) As a patch of scraped skin heals, the cells fill in the injured area but do not grow beyond that. This is an example of
Ans. E) anchorage-dependant inhibition.
27) Mature human nerve cells and muscle cells
Ans. A) remain undifferentiated unless an injury occurs.
28) The cell cycle control system
Ans. B) triggers and controls major events in the cell cycle.
31) A benign tumor differs from a malignant in that a benign tumor
Ans. A) is cancerous.
32) You are the director of research for a drug company. A list of candidate drugs is brought to you. Which of the following shows the greatest promise as a cancer chemotherapy? A drug that
Ans. A) causes cells to divide at a right angle from the usual orientation
33) Which one of the following is not a function of mitosis. Mitosis helps organisms
Ans. B) regenerate lost parts.
34) Two chromosomes in a nucleus that carry loci for the same traits in the same positions on the chromosomes but specify different versions of some traits constitute a pair of
A) homologous chromosomes
36) Which one of the following statements is false?
Ans. D) Gametes are made by mitosis
37) Which of the following statements is false?
Ans. C) Mitosis produces daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
40) Which of the following is a difference between mitosis and meiosis?
Ans. A) In meiosis four daughter cells are produced, whereas in mitosis two daughter cells are produced.
41) Which one of the following statements is false?
Ans. D) In meiosis, the chromosomes replicate only once in the preceding interphase.
Ans. C) examines points of crossing over
47) Which one of the following is false?
Ans. C) Down syndrome is the most common serious birth defect in the United States.
52) Cancer is not usually inherited because
Ans. A) the chromosomal changes in cancer arc usually confined to somatic cells.
1) The genetic material is duplicated during
Ans. B) G1
2) Asexual reproduction requires————– individual(s).
Ans. A) 0
3) Both mitosis and meiosis are preceded by
Ans. B) interphase.
4) Which of these is not a component of meiosis?
Ans. E) random fertilization
1) Which one of the following statements is false?
Ans. E) Herpesviruses and the virus that causes AIDS can remain latent inside our cells for
5) The monomers of DNA and RNA ore
Ans. A) amino acids
6) Which one of the following is false?
Ans. D) One RNA molucule can include four different nucleotides in its structure.
7) Which one of the following is false?
Ans. B) DNA uses the nitrogenous base uracil.
8) Which one the following is false?
Ans. A) The DNA molecule has a uniform diameter.
10) the shape of a DNA molecule is most like
Ans. A) A set of railroad tracks.
11) DNA replication
Ans. C) produces two daughter DNA molecules that are complementary to each other,
12) If one strand of DNA is CGGTAC, the coresponding strand would be
Ans. E) GCCATG.
13) The copying mechanism of DNA is most like
A) asing a photographic negative to make a positive image.
14) When one DNA molecule is copied to make two DNA molecules, the new DNA contains
Ans. B)50% of the parent DNA.
18) Which one of the following sequences best describe the flow of ioformation when a gene directs the synthesis of a cellular component?
Ans. C) protein –RNA DNA
19) The transfer of genetic information from DNA to RNA is called
Ans B) transcription.
20) Experiments have demonstrated that the “words” of the genetic code (the units that specify amino acids) are
Ans. D) nucleotide sequences of various canons lengths.
21) The direction for each amino acid as a polypeptide is indicated by a colon that consists ————-of moleotide(s) in an RNA molecule.
Ans. B) 4
22) We would expect that a 15-nucleotide sequence will direct the production of a polypeptide that consists of
Ans E) 15 amino acids.
24) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the linking together of RNA nucleotides to form RNA?
Ans.A) RNA polymers
28) Translation consists of which of the following?
Ans. A) the conversion of genetic information from the e language of nuclei acids to the language of proteins
30) Which one of the following is not a function of tRNA?
Ans. E) All of the choices are functions of tRNA.
31) Which of the following is/are required for translation to occur?
Ans. E) All of the choices are required for translation to occur.
33) Which one of the following is false?
Ans C) An mRNA molecule transcribed from DNA is shorter than the genetic message it carries.
34) Which one of the following best describes the sequence of events of translation?
Ans. C) codon recognition— peptide bond formation — translocation —- termination
35) Which one of the following is false?
Ans. B) Eucaryotic mRNA is processed in several ways before export out of the nucleus.
36) Any change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called
Ans. A) a mutation.
37) A physical or chemical agent that changes the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called
Ans. A) a reverse transcriptase
44) Which one of the following statements about plant viruses is false?
Ans. E) There ace many successful ways to rid infected plants of a virus.
45) Which one of the following is false?
Ans. C) Very few new human diseases have originated in other animals because the genetic differences are too great.
46) What kind of virus is HIV (the AIDS virus)?
Ans C) a retrovirus
47) Which of the following is the enzyme that HIV uses to synthesize DNA on an RNA template?
Ans. B) RNA polymerase
2) DNA and RNA are polymers of
Ans. D) amino acids.
3) Which of these is always true with regard to a DNA double helix
Ans. E) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine.
4) What enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a new DNA strand?
Ans. E) DNA polymerase
5) What enzyme catalyzes the unwinding of a DNA double helix?
Ans. C) ligase
8) HIV is responsible for
Ans. E) AIDS.