Multiple-choice answers - Education Essay Example

Q 3) Light microscopes

Ans - Multiple-choice answers introduction. D) use light and glass lenses to magnify an image.

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Q 4) Whicch are of the following statements is true about electron microscopes?

Ans. A) Electron beams are focused to create magnified image of an object.

 

Q 5) A scientist wants to magnify a pollen grains 8,000 times and examine the ridges and pores on its surface. Which see of the following instruments would be best?

Ans. D) A scanning light microscope

 

Q 6) A scientist wants to examine living cells lining the respiratory tract to determine how the cells use tiny hairs to move dirt and mucus away front the lungs. Which one of the following instruments would be best and why?

Ans. D) A scanning electron microscope, because it can reveal structures on cell surfaces.

 

Q 7) A scanning electron microscope is used so study ________, whereas a transmission electron microscope is used to study __________

Ans. D) Internal cell structures ………….cell surfaces

 

 

 

 

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Q 9) The diameter of most animal and plant cells ranges from

Ans. B) 0.1 to 1.0 microns.

 

14) Which one of the following is not found in prokaryotic cells?

Ans.  A) A membrane-bound nucleus

 

16) The nucleoid region of prokaryotic cells

Ans. B) separates the RNA from the cytoplasm.

 

17) Cells that luck a membrane-bound nucleus are — cells.

Ans. C) Prokaryotic

 

18) You are sold that the cells on a microscope slide are plant, animal, or bacterial. You look at thesis through a microscope and see cell walls and membrane-bound organelles. You conclude that the cells

Ans. A) Are plant cells.

 

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20) Which one of the following statements about cellular metabolism is false? Cellular metabolism

Ans. C) can involve the synthesis of steroid hormones

 

21) The membranous compartmentalization of a cell

Ans. C) requires the presence of a cell wall.

 

22) In eukaryotic cells, internal membranes

Ans. E) All of the choices are correct.

 

23) The nucleus of a cell

Ans. D) contains DNA.

 

24) Long fibers of DNA and proteins are called a

Ans. A) Chromatin.

 

25) During cell reproduction, chromatin fibers coil   up into structures called

Ans. D) chromosomes.

 

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30) The cells that produce hair contains a lot of————- The cells that produce the oils that coat the hair contain a lot of——

Ans. A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum—–lysosomes.

 

33) The Golgi apparatus

Ans. D) forms fats from glycerols and fatty acids.

 

34) Which one of the following statements is false? The Golgi apparatus

Ans. E) sorts molecules according to their destination.

 

35) Lysosomes

Ans. E) All of the choices are correct.

 

40) Contractile vacuoles

Ans. D) allow organisms to avoid dehydration by absorbing water from the environment

 

42) Which of the following is not a component of the endomembrane system?

Ans. A) Mysosomes

 

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43) Insulin is a protein that is produced by pancreatic cells and secreted into the bloodstreams. Which of the following choices best describes the route of insulin from its production to its exit from the cell?

Ans. D) rough ER, transport vesicles, cell membrane

 

45) The function of chloroplasts is

Ans. D) photosynthesis.

 

46) The function of mitochondria is

Ans. A) cellular respiration.

 

47) The——- of a mitochondria is/are an adaptation that increases the surface area and enhances a mitochondria’s ability to produce ATP.

Ans. B) grana

 

48) Cyanide inhibits mitochondria’s function; as a result the rate of

Ans. B) ATP synthesis would decrease.

 

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49) Mitochondria differ from chloroplasts in that mitochondria

Ans. C) Contain membrane folds called cristae, whereas chloroplasts contain dislike vesicles in stacks called grana.

 

53) A drug that interferes with microtubule formation is likely to completely disrupt

Ans. E) the movements of sperm cells.

 

54) Cilia differ from flagella in that

Ans. D) cilia are typically more numerous and shorter than flagella.

 

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57) A woman is having trouble becoming pregnant. Examination of her partner’s sperm indicates that dynein arms are missing from the flagella in his sperm cells. A physician explains that this could interfere with fertility by

Ans. B) preventing the sperm from swimming to the egg cell.

 

58) Which one of the following statements about plant cell walls is false?

Ans. E) Wood is primarily composed of plant cell walls.

 

61) Most animal cells are

Ans. B) Attached to each other via plasmodesmata.

 

64) Which of the following cell structures is not associated with the breakdown of harmful substances or substances that are no longer needed by the cell?

Ans. E) All of the choices play a role in these functions.

 

65) All cells on Earth

Ans. E) All of the choices are correct

 

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1) One centimeter = ———-millimeters.

Ans. C) 10

 

2) A bacterial cells DNA is found in its

Ans. B) nucleus.

 

3) Archaea are composed of_________ cells.

Ans. B) prokaryotic

 

4) Which of these is not a compound of the endomembrane system?

Ans. E) Golgi apparatus

 

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1) Which of the following energy transfers is/are possible in living systems?

Ans. E)All of the choices arc correct.

 

2) Which one of the following processes is endergonic?

Ans. A) The  burning of wood

 

3) What is  the basic difference between  exergonic and endergonic reactions?

Ans. D)) Exergonic reactions release energy; endergonic reactions absorb it.

 

4) Which one of the following statements concerning energy is false?

Ans. E) during photosynthesis, plants convert kinetic energy into chemical energy.

 

5) The transfer of a  phosphate group to a molecule or compound  is called

Ans C) phosphorylation.

 

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6) When a cell uses chemical energy to perform work, it couples a(s) __________ reaction with a(n)———— reaction.

Ans. B) endergonic—– exergonic

 

6) ATP can be used as the cell’s energy because

Ans.  B) ATP is the most energy-rich small molecule in the cell.

 

7) An energy burner

Ans. A)is the amount of energy that must be produced by the reactants to start a chemical reaction.

 

8) Most of cells enzymes are

Ans. B) proteins.

 

9) When an enzyme catalyses a reaction.

Ans. A) it lowers the activation  energy of the reaction.

 

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10) The active site of an enzyme is

Ans. B) the highly changeable portion of an enzyme that adapts to fit the substrates of various reactions.

 

11) Which one of the following is false?

Ans. D) Enzymes emerge unchanged from the reactions they catalyze.

 

12) Which one of the following is true?

Ans. B) An enzymes function is unaffected by changes in pH.

 

13) Which of the following substances could be a cofactor?

Ans. C) a zinc atom

 

14) A child is brought to the hospital with a fever of 107 F. Doctors immediately order an ice bath to lower the child’s temperature. Which explanation offers the most logical reason for this action?

Ans. A) Elevated body temperature will increase reaction rates in the child’s cells and overload the limited number of enzymes found in the cell.

 

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15) Heating inactivates enzymes by

Ans. D)  changing the enzymes three-dimensional shape.

 

16) Which of the following is a coenzyme?

Ans B) vitamin B6

 

17) Which of the following can affect the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?

Ans. E) All of the choices are correct.

 

18) A medical research team is concerned about the outbreak of a new  disease in humans. The bacteria that cause the disease resemble bacteria that cause a similar disease in cattle. The bovine disease is treated with a drug that inhibits a bacterial enzyme crucial to bacterial cell division. As the researchers prepare to test the drug in humans, they will

Ans. A) be fairly confident about its safety; bacterial enzymes are all very different from human enzymes, so the drug should only affect the bacteria.

 

319) Where are eukaryotic cell enzymes typically located?

Ans. B) inside organelles

 

 

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34) Plasma membranes are selectively permeable. This means that

Ans. B) plasma membrane allows some substances to enter or leave a cell more easily than others.

 

35) Which one of the following is not a function of the plasma membrane? The plasma membrane

Ans. D) is the control center of the cell.

 

37) Membrane phospholipids

A) Have hydrophobic heads that faces the center of the membrane and are shielded from water.

 

40) The cholesterol associated with cell membranes

Ans. A) is attached to membrane proteins and extends into the watery environment surrounding the cell.

 

43) Most of the functions of a cell membrane are performed by

Ans C) phospholipids.

 

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44) Which one of the following is not a function of membrane protein?  Membrane proteins

Ans. A)  serve as enzymes

 

45) Relaying a message from a membrane receptor to a molecule that performs a specific function within a cell is called

Ans. A) signal transduction.

 

46) Which of the following is not a true statement about diffusion? Diffusion

Ans. C) requires no input of energy into the system.

 

49) The molecules responsible for membrane transport are

Ans. C) phospholipids.

 

50) Osmosis can be defined as

Ans. D) the diffusion of a solute,

 

51) When two aqueous solutions that differ in solute concentration are placed on either side of a semipermeable membrane, and osmosis is allowed to take place, the water will

Ans. A)  exhibit a net movement to the side with lower water concentration.

 

 

 

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52) In lab, you use a special balloon that is permeable to water but sot sucrose to make an “artificial cell” The balloon is fiIled with a solution 20% sucrose and 80% water and is immersed in beaker containing a solution of 40% sucrose and 60% water.. Which of the following will occur?

Ans. A) Water will leave the balloon.

 

58) You are adrift in the Atlantic Ocean, and, being thirsty, drink the surrounding seawater. As a result,

Ans. B) your cells lyse, due to the excessive intake of salt

 

59) Which one of the following processes could result in the movement of a substance into a cell, if the substance is more concentrated in the cell than in the surrounding?

Ans. A) Active transport

 

64) The act of a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is

Ans. D) phagocytosis.

 

65) Phagocytosis is to eating as pinocyosis is to

Ans. B)  drinking.

 

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66) Cells acquire LDLs by

Ans. C) receptor-mediated- endocytosis.

 

67) An inherited lack (or shortage) of functional LDL, receptor causes

Ans. C) hypercholesterolemia.

 

68) The ultimate source of nearly all energy available to life on Earth is

Ans. E)  sunlight

 

69) Ultimately, nearly all animals are dependent on——– as their source of energy.

Ans D) cellular respiration

 

1) ln the reaction A…B+C+heat

Ans B) the potential energy of the products is greater than that of the reactant.

 

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2) The energy required to initiate an exergonic reaction is called

Ans E) the energy of activation.

 

4) Substrates bind to an enzyme’s ___________ site.

Ans. E) active

 

5) The interior of the phospholipid  bilayer is

Ans. D) hydrophilic.

 

6) Oxygen crosses a plasma membrane by

Ans C) active transport.

 

8) Which of these processes can move a solute against its concentration gradient?

Ans. D) facilitated diffusion

 

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1) The creation of offspring carrying genetic information from just a single parent is called

Ans. B) sexual reproduction.

 

2) Which one of the following is a difference between sexual arid asexual reproduction?

Ans. D) Sexual reproduction is more likely to increase genetic variation than is sexual reproduction.

 

3) Strictly speaking, the phrase “like begets like” refers to

Ans. B) sexual reproduction only,

 

4) With the exceptions of identical twins, siblings who have the same two biological parents are likely to look similar but not identical, to each other because they have

Ans. E). similar but not identical combination of genes.

 

5) Virchow’s simple and profound principle, stated formally in 1853, was that

Ans. E) All  life evolves,

 

 

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6) Which one of the following is false? Cell division

Ans. D) is the basis of both sexual and asexual reproduction.

 

7) Which one of the following is false?

Ans. B) Most prokaryotes reproduce by binary fission

 

8) Sister chromatids are

Ans. A) found right after a cell divides.

 

10) Prior to mitosis, each chromosome of a eukaryotic cell consists of a pair of identical structures called

Ans. B) sister chromosomes,

 

12) Eukaryotic cells spend most of their cell cycle in which phase?

Ans. A) interphase

 

13) The process by which the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell divides to produce two cells is called

Ans B) cytokinesis

 

 

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16) Looking into your microscope you spot an unusual cell. Instead of the typical rounded cell shape, the cell has a very narrow middle separating two bulging ends. It sort of looks like the number 8 Then you realize, this is a cell

Ans. E) that is about to undergo mitosis.

 

18) During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up on a plane located equidistant from the two spindle poles?

Ans .C) metaphase

 

23) Which of the following must occur for a plant or animal to grow and develop normally?

Ans. B) It must be able to control the timing and rate of cell division in different parts of its body.

 

24) When animal cells are grown in a petri dish, they typically stop dividing once they have formed a single, unbroken layer on the bottom of the dish, This arrest of division is an example of

Ans. D) cell division repression.

 

26) As a patch of scraped skin heals, the cells fill in the injured area but do not grow beyond that. This is an example of

Ans. E) anchorage-dependant inhibition.

 

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27) Mature human nerve cells and muscle cells

Ans. A) remain undifferentiated unless an injury occurs.

 

28) The cell cycle control system

Ans. B) triggers and controls major events in the cell cycle.

 

31) A benign tumor differs from a malignant in that a benign tumor

Ans. A) is cancerous.

 

32) You are the director of research for a drug company. A list of candidate drugs is brought to you. Which of the following shows the greatest promise as a cancer chemotherapy? A drug that

Ans. A) causes cells to divide at a right angle from the  usual orientation

 

33) Which one of the following is not a function of mitosis. Mitosis helps organisms

Ans. B) regenerate lost parts.

 

34) Two chromosomes in a nucleus that carry loci for the same traits in the same positions  on the chromosomes but specify different versions of some traits constitute a pair of

A) homologous chromosomes

 

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36) Which one of the following statements is false?

Ans. D) Gametes are made by mitosis

 

37) Which of the following statements is false?

Ans. C) Mitosis produces daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

 

40) Which of the following is a difference between mitosis and meiosis?

Ans. A) In meiosis four daughter cells are produced, whereas in mitosis two daughter cells are produced.

 

41) Which one of the following statements is false?

Ans. D) In meiosis, the chromosomes replicate only once in the preceding interphase.

 

45) Karyotyping

Ans. C) examines points of crossing over

 

47) Which one of the following is false?

Ans. C) Down syndrome is the most common serious birth defect in the United States.

 

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52) Cancer is not usually inherited because

Ans. A) the chromosomal changes in cancer arc usually confined to somatic cells.

 

1) The genetic material is duplicated during

Ans. B)  G1

 

2) Asexual reproduction requires————– individual(s).

Ans. A) 0

 

3) Both mitosis and meiosis are preceded by

Ans. B) interphase.

 

4) Which of these is not a component of meiosis?

Ans. E) random fertilization

 

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1) Which one of the following statements is false?

Ans. E) Herpesviruses and the virus that causes AIDS can remain latent inside our cells for

 

5) The monomers of DNA and RNA ore

Ans. A) amino acids

 

6) Which one of the following is false?

Ans. D) One RNA molucule can include four different nucleotides in its structure.

 

7) Which one of the following is false?

Ans. B) DNA uses the nitrogenous base uracil.

 

8) Which one the following is false?

Ans. A) The DNA molecule has a uniform diameter.

 

10)  the  shape of a DNA molecule is most  like

Ans. A) A set of railroad     tracks.

 

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11) DNA replication

Ans. C) produces two daughter DNA molecules that are complementary to each other,

 

12) If one strand of DNA is CGGTAC, the coresponding strand would be

Ans. E) GCCATG.

 

13) The copying mechanism of DNA is most like

A) asing a photographic negative to make a positive image.

 

14) When one DNA molecule is copied to make two DNA molecules, the new DNA contains

Ans. B)50% of the parent DNA.

 

18) Which one of the following sequences best describe the flow of ioformation when a gene directs the synthesis of a cellular component?

Ans. C) protein –RNA    DNA

 

19) The transfer of genetic information from DNA to RNA is called

Ans B) transcription.

 

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20) Experiments have demonstrated that the “words” of the genetic code (the units that specify amino acids) are

Ans. D) nucleotide sequences of various canons lengths.

 

21) The direction for each amino acid as a polypeptide is indicated by a colon that consists ————-of moleotide(s) in an RNA molecule.

Ans. B) 4

 

22) We would expect that a 15-nucleotide sequence will direct the production of a polypeptide that consists of

Ans E) 15 amino acids.

 

24) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the linking together of RNA nucleotides to form RNA?

Ans.A) RNA polymers

 

28) Translation consists of which of the following?

Ans. A) the conversion of genetic  information from the e language of nuclei acids to the language of proteins

 

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30) Which one of the following is not a function of  tRNA?

Ans. E) All of the choices are functions of tRNA.

 

31) Which of the following is/are required for translation to occur?

Ans. E) All of the choices are required for translation to occur.

 

33) Which one of the following is false?

Ans C) An mRNA molecule transcribed from DNA is shorter than the genetic message it carries.

 

34) Which one of the following best describes the sequence of events of translation?

Ans. C) codon recognition— peptide bond formation — translocation —- termination

 

35) Which one of the following is false?

Ans. B) Eucaryotic mRNA is processed in several ways before export out of the nucleus.

 

36) Any change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called

Ans. A) a mutation.

 

 

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37) A physical or chemical agent that changes the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called

Ans. A) a reverse transcriptase

 

44) Which one of the following statements about plant viruses is false?

Ans. E) There ace many successful ways to rid infected plants of a virus.

 

45) Which one of the following is false?

Ans. C) Very few new human diseases have originated in other animals because the genetic differences are too great.

 

46) What kind of virus is HIV (the AIDS virus)?

Ans  C) a retrovirus

 

47) Which of the following is the enzyme that HIV uses to synthesize DNA on an RNA template?

Ans. B) RNA polymerase

 

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2) DNA and RNA are polymers of

Ans. D) amino acids.

 

3) Which of these is always true with regard to a DNA double helix

Ans. E) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine.

 

4) What enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a new DNA strand?

Ans. E) DNA polymerase

 

5) What enzyme catalyzes the unwinding of a DNA double helix?

Ans. C) ligase

 

8) HIV is responsible for

Ans. E) AIDS.

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