Biology Test: The Life Cycle Plants and Animals

Which life cycle stage is found in plants but not animals?

A life cycle in which the only multicellular form is haploid is most typical of __________.

Regardless of whether an organism is an animal, a plant, a fungus, or an algal cell, all zygotes are __________ and are formed during the __________ of two __________ gametes.

Which of the following occurs in meiosis, but not mitosis?

A clone is the product of __________.

The life cycle called __________ in plants has two multicellular stages: the __________ and the __________.

Which of the following statements about homologous chromosomes is correct?

Ignoring crossover, how many kinds of gametes can be produced by an organism with a diploid number of 8?

Genetic diversity requires __________.

How many genes are present in the human genome?

A pair of genetic structures carrying genes that control the same inherited characters are called __________.

Regarding the role of cohesin protein in maintaining cohesion between sister chromatids, which of the following statements is false?

The major contribution of sex to evolution is that __________.

The zipper-like complex that forms in meiosis occurs during __________ and is called the __________.

At the end of mitosis, __________ daughter cells that are genetically __________ are formed, while at the end of meiosis, __________ daughter cells that are genetically __________ are formed.

Somatic cells in animals differ from gametes in that somatic cells __________.

Somatic cells in humans contain __________ set(s) of chromosomes and are therefore termed __________.

Somatic cells in humans differs from gametes in that human somatic cells __________.

Unless the chromosomes were stained to show band patterns, a karyotype would be least likely to show which of the following?

Darwin realized the importance of heritable variation to evolution __________.

Sister chromatids differ from nonsister chromatids in that sister chromatids __________.

The process called __________ reduces the chromosome number by __________.

Which of the following is a function of mitosis in humans?

Characteristic of the bdelloid rotifer is that it __________.

The egg (ovum) of a rabbit contains 22 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in the somatic (body) cells of a rabbit?

What is a locus?

Allelic variation is an important source of __________ in a population.

__________ are a group of genetically identical individuals produced by a process called __________.

In meiosis, __________ of __________ cross over and form __________.

What is the result when a diploid cell undergoes meiosis?

Which of the following events does not occur during interphase of the cell cycle?

During interphase, the genetic material of a typical eukaryotic cell is __________.

Which of the following statements describes a cell that undergoes mitosis but not cytokinesis?

Chromatids are __________.

Observations of cancer cells in culture support the hypothesis that cancer cells __________.

The function of the mitotic cell cycle is to produce daughter cells that __________.

Which of the following events occurs during prometaphase of mitosis?

Which of the following events does not occur during prophase of mitosis?

How does the process of mitosis differ between most eukaryotes and other eukaryotes such as diatoms and dinoflagellates?

DNA replication occurs in __________.

During binary fission in a bacterium __________.

A cell contains 40 chromatids at the beginning of mitosis. How many chromosomes will it contain at the completion of cytokinesis?

The complex of DNA and protein that makes up a eukaryotic chromosome is properly called __________.

What is the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor?

Which of the following phases of mitosis is essentially the opposite of prometaphase in terms of the nuclear envelope?

A cell biologist examined the DNA content of a cell from a fruit fly larva during the G1 phase and determined that it had 150 units of DNA. After measuring the DNA content of the same type of cell after the G2 phase, it was discovered that the cell had 300 units of DNA. How is this possible?

Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference(s) between mitosis and binary fission?

Which of the following structures is/are part of the mitotic spindle?

In animal cell mitosis, the cleavage furrow forms during which stage of the cell cycle?

Checkpoints in the cell cycle control system __________.

How many chromatids does a human somatic cell contain after interphase and just prior to mitosis?

The region of a chromosome holding the two double strands of replicated DNA together is called __________.

The spread of cancer cells to other locations in the body is known as __________.

You would know a dividing cell was a plant cell rather than an animal cell if you saw that __________.

Which of the following events occurs during metaphase of mitosis?

Which of the following events occurs during telophase of mitosis?

Which of the following events occurs during anaphase of mitosis?

Cytokinesis refers to __________.

One event occurring during prophase is __________.

The F1 generation differed from the F2 in Mendel’s experiments in that __________.

Human ABO groups are best described as an example of __________.

If the two traits that Mendel looked at in his dihybrid cross of smooth yellow peas with wrinkled green peas had been controlled by genes that were located near each other on the same chromosome, then the F2 generation __________.

In a typical pea experiment, two true-breeding plants with distinct traits of a single character are called the __________, and the offspring are called the __________, which will always be __________.

If an organism that is homozygous dominant is crossed with a heterozygote for that trait, the offspring will be __________.

Pea plants are tall if they have the genotype TT or Tt, and they are short if they have genotype tt. A tall plant is mated with a short plant. Which outcome below would indicate that the tall parent plant was heterozygous?

Color in squash is controlled by epistatic interactions in which color is recessive to no color. At the first locus white squash (W) is dominant to colored squash (w). At the second locus yellow (Y) is dominant to green (y). What is the phenotype of a squash with the genotype wwYy?

A man who can roll his tongue and a woman who cannot roll her tongue have a son who can roll his tongue (R = can roll tongue; r = can’t roll tongue). The son is curious about whether his father is homozygous or heterozygous for the tongue-rolling trait. Which of the following facts would allow him to know?

In Labrador retrievers, a dog that has the genotype BBee, where BB produces black-pigmented fur and ee produces yellow-pigmented fur, would have __________ fur and would exhibit __________.

Which choice below is a basic difference between Mendel’s particulate hypothesis and the hypothesis of blending inheritance?

Achondroplasia, a type of dwarfism, and Huntington’s disease are examples of __________, with the exception that the Huntington’s allele is __________.

If a plant variety is true-breeding for a dominant trait, then __________.

In addition to the ABO system, humans have other blood groups, including the MN system. Individuals who have alleles for both M and N show __________ for the M and N red blood cell surface antigens.

Human blood groups are governed by three alleles, A, B, and O. A and B are codominant and O is recessive to both. A man who has type B blood and a woman who has type A blood could have children of which of the following phenotypes?

Mendel’s law of segregation states that __________

In humans, height and skin color have continuous variation in the population because of __________.

The effect of the environment on a phenotype is referred to as __________.

In incomplete dominance, the offspring __________.

An alternative version of a gene is called a(n) __________.

Huntington’s disease is an example of a genetic disorder caused by __________.

In people with sickle-cell disease, red blood cells break down, clump, and clog the blood vessels. The blood vessels and the broken cells accumulate in the spleen. Among other things this leads to physical weakness, heart failure, joint pain, and brain damage. Such a suite of symptoms can be explained by __________.

Fetal cells may be removed along with fluid from the womb by a process known as __________.

If a heterozygous plant is allowed to self-pollinate, what proportion of the offspring will also be heterozygous?

A red bull is crossed with a white cow and all of the offspring are roan, an intermediate color that is caused by the presence of both red and white hairs. This is an example of genes that are __________.

What kind of protection does the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008 provide the public with regard to the use of genetic information?

Mendel studied __________, heritable features that vary among individuals; each variant is called a __________.

__________ occurs when a single gene affects the phenotype of many characters in an individual.

The term “true-breeding plants” means __________.

Besides the fact that pea plants have a short generation time, the key to Mendel’s successful plant-breeding experiments was that pea plants usually __________.

A family tree that describes traits in families is called a __________.

Gene silencing is called __________.

In an X-linked, or sex-linked, trait, it is the contribution of __________ that determines whether a son will display the trait.

The chromosome theory of inheritance states that __________.

In Klinefelter syndrome, individuals are phenotypically male, but have reduced sperm production and may have some breast development in adolescence. The cells of Klinefelter individuals have two X chromosomes and one Y (they are XXY instead of XY).

This occurs because of what meiotic error?

What appears to be the mechanism for genomic imprinting?

X inactivation occurs when there is/are at least __________ X chromosomes present in an individual, forming a structure called a __________ by a __________ event.

Down syndrome is an example of __________, and the child is __________ for chromosome 21.

Linked genes __________.

With a microscope, you examine some somatic cells from a woman and notice that each nucleus has two Barr bodies. What can you infer about the sex chromosomes in this individual?

Wild type refers to __________.

Genomic imprinting in mammals appears to primarily affect genes involved in __________.

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is caused by a sex-linked recessive allele. Its victims are almost invariably boys, who usually die before the age of 20. Why is this disorder almost never seen in girls?

Why did Morgan choose Drosophila for his genetics experiments?

In a certain fish, fin rays (supporting structures for the fins) can be either bony or soft in adult fish. Sex linkage in a fish is similar to that in humans. What evidence would most strongly support the idea that the ray locus is on the X chromosome?

Female mammals have two X chromosomes, one from their mother and one from their father. During X inactivation, one X chromosome in each embryonic cell is randomly inactivated; therefore, all of the tissues that arise from that cell have the same inactivated X chromosome. Female mammals are therefore considered to be __________ of the maternal and paternal cells.

In humans, a normal male’s somatic cells will have __________ set(s) of chromosomes and sex chromosomes designated as __________ and __________, while in bees and ants, a normal male’s somatic cells have __________ set(s) of chromosomes, which are __________.

In X-linked patterns of inheritance, __________.

In werewolves (hypothetically), pointy ears (P) are dominant over round ears (p). The gene is on the X chromosome. (Sex determination in werewolves is the same as for “other” humans.) A certain female werewolf has pointy ears even though her father had round ears.

What percentage of her sons will have round ears if she mates with a werewolf with round ears?

A linkage map __________.

When crossing over occurs between two linked genes in an F1 dihybrid testcross, the frequency of the parental types will always __________ the frequency of the recombinant types when compared to Mendel’s unlinked genes.

Examples of alterations of chromosomal structures include all of the following except __________.

In a cross between wild-type (red-eyed) female flies and mutant white-eyed male flies, the F1 generation should always produce females with __________ eyes and males with __________ eyes.

Individuals with an extra X chromosome __________.

You perform a testcross using F1 dihybrid flies. If, in the resulting offspring, the percentages of parental and recombinant offspring are about the same, this would indicate that the two genes are __________.

The __________ states that genes have specific positions on chromosomes and that chromosomes undergo both __________ and __________.

Compared to peas, fruit flies were thought to have no variations, until the discovery of a __________ fly by __________.

When an individual has an additional chromosome, that chromosome set is called __________, and the condition is known as __________.

The ability to observe meiosis in gamete production supported Mendel’s first law of __________, which applies when __________ separate, and supported Mendel’s second law of __________, which applies when __________ sort __________.

__________ is the failure of __________ to separate in meiosis I or the failure of __________ to separate in meiosis II.

Queen Victoria was a carrier of a recessive sex-linked allele for hemophilia. Which of the following possibilities could explain the presence of the hemophilia allele in her genotype?

In DNA replication, the next nucleotide is incorporated into the growing polymer at the __________ of the molecule by an enzyme called __________.

The role of DNA polymerases in DNA replication is to __________.

The information in DNA is contained in __________.

DNA replication begins at a site called the origin of replication, forming a bubble, which is followed by a __________, where parental strands are unwound by __________.

Which description of DNA replication is correct?

The overall error rate in the completed DNA molecule is approximately __________.

DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the __________ of the leading strands, and to the __________ of the lagging strands (Okazaki fragments).

In the famous Hershey and Chase “blender experiment,” radioactive sulfur was used to label __________, and radioactive phosphorus was used to label __________, demonstrating that the genetic material of a bacteriophage is __________.

When __________ form after an exposure to ultraviolet (UV) light, a __________ can remove the damaged nucleotides and replace them with normal nucleotides.

In bacterial DNA replication of the lagging strand, __________ is required for the synthesis of a new DNA strand whereas __________ is required for removing the RNA primer and replacing it with DNA nucleotides.

X-ray diffraction images produced by __________ showed that DNA is a __________.

Proteins that are involved in packaging the eukaryotic chromosome into “beads” called __________ are __________.

Griffith showed that dead __________ cells __________ living __________ cells into living __________ cells.

What is the major difference between bacterial chromosomes and eukaryotic chromosomes?

In DNA, the two purines are __________, and the two pyrimidines are __________.

One strand of a DNA molecule has the base sequence 5′-ATAGGT-3′. The complementary base sequence on the other strand of DNA will be 3′-__________-5′.

Replication of the lagging strand of DNA is accomplished by repeatedly making __________ followed by 1,000-2,000 nucleotide segments called __________.

Of the three alternative models of DNA replication, which are the __________ models, the one that explains how DNA replicates is the __________ model.

Telomeres are __________.

Evidence to support that DNA strands run antiparallel to each other includes all of the following except __________.

Chargaff analyzed DNA and found that the numbers of adenine molecules is approximately equal to the numbers of __________ molecules and that the numbers of __________ molecules is approximately equal to the numbers of __________ molecules.

The 5ꞌ end of a DNA strand always has a free __________ group while the 3ꞌ end always has a free __________ group.

In analyzing the number of different bases in a DNA sample, which result would be consistent with the base-pairing rules?

The unwinding of DNA at the replication fork causes twisting and strain in the DNA ahead of the fork, which is relieved by an enzyme called __________.

Who is credited with explaining the structure of the DNA double helix?

The two sugar-phosphate strands that form the rungs of a DNA double helix are joined to each other through __________.

The experiments of Meselson and Stahl showed that DNA __________.

A virus that infects bacteria is called a __________, which is made up of the macromolecules __________ and __________.

Which of the following components is required for DNA replication?

Which of the following catalyzes the linkage between ribonucleotides to form RNA during gene expression?

An exception to the one gene-one enzyme hypothesis is __________.

One strand of a DNA molecule has the following sequence: 3-AGTACAAACTATCCACCGTC-5.

In order for transcription to occur in that strand, there would have to be a specific recognition sequence, called a(n) __________, to the left of the DNA sequence indicated.

In eukaryotic cells, a __________ by a __________ targets a growing peptide to the endoplasmic reticulum.

__________ is the synthesis of RNA using information in the DNA.

The bonds that hold tRNA molecules in the correct three-dimensional shape are __________.

The structures called snRNPs are __________.

Which of the following best describes the arrangement of genetic information in a DNA molecule?

How many nucleotides are needed to code for a protein with 450 amino acids?

By bombarding the fungus Neurospora crassa with X-rays, Beadle and Tatum were able to study __________ and characterize enzymes in a __________.

The “triplet code” refers to the fact that _________.

__________ is the synthesis of a polypeptide using information in the mRNA.

Bacteria can transcribe and translate human genes to produce functional human proteins because __________.

Polysomes may be defined as __________.

RNA molecules that function as enzymes are called __________.

Gene expression is __________.

The sickle-cell β-globin mutation is an example of a __________.

Stop codons are unique because they __________.

When RNA is being made, the RNA base _________ always pairs with the base __________ in DNA.

Insertions and deletions are called __________ mutations.

Which of the following is a post-translational modification of a polypeptide?

Who formulated the one gene-one enzyme hypothesis?

What is a key difference in gene expression between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?

The function of tRNA during protein synthesis is to __________.

Eukaryotic processing of the primary transcript includes __________.

Genetic information of eukaryotic cells is transferred from the nucleus to the cytoplasm in the form of __________.

What is the proper order of the following events in the expression of a eukaryotic gene?

1. translation
2. RNA processing
3. transcription
4. modification of protein

Because the bacterial cell’s DNA is not surrounded by a nuclear envelope, __________ occur(s).

The type of point mutation that results in a premature stop codon is called a _________ mutation.

The TATA box is a __________ that allows for the binding of __________ and __________.

In a eukaryote, activating transcription factors may stimulate gene expression by binding to a DNA site called a(n) __________.

A cancer cell __________.

In Drosophila development, pattern development in the late embryo, larva, and adult is controlled by __________.

In the trp (tryptophan) operon, the __________ binds to the product of the trp operon synthesis pathway, called __________, forming the __________.

The trp (tryptophan) operon is an example of a(n) __________ operon.

In addition to a promoter, eukaryotic genes have control elements called __________.

Post-transcriptional processing of a pre-mRNA allows for differential cell expression by a process called __________.

What is the role of proteasomes?

What two genes are often mutated in colon cancer?

Chemotherapeutic treatment for breast cancer depends on the absence or overexpression of the __________ gene(s).

In the lac operon, the inducer is __________.

Which of the following best describes the makeup of the human genome?

The trp (tryptophan) operon is an example of a(n) __________ that is controlled by __________.

In prokaryotic genomes, groups of functionally related genes along with their promoters and operators are found together in __________.

Although the number of genes in the human genome is surprisingly low compared to less complex organisms, the number of possible products from those genes is greatly amplified by __________.

MyoD promotes muscle cell development by __________.

In eukaryotes, histone acetylation __________.

The control of gene expression is more complex in multicellular eukaryotes than in prokaryotes because __________.

In general, operons that encode the enzymes of a biosynthetic (anabolic) pathway (such as the trp operon) are __________, and those encoding the enzymes of a catabolic pathway (such as the lac operon) are __________.

In Drosophila development, the anterior-posterior axis of the embryo is determined by __________.

Gene expression in bacteria is regulated primarily by __________.

Specific cells that appear undifferentiated under the microscope but are already fated to become muscle cells are called __________.

In an inducible operon, the inducer is often the __________ in the pathway being regulated; the inducer binds to the __________, thus rendering it __________.

Small noncoding RNAs (ncRNAs) called piwi-interacting RNAs, or piRNAs, __________.

What gene has been called the “guardian angel of the genome?”

MicroRNAs binding to complementary sequences on an mRNA __________.

Cell type-specific transcription is accomplished __________.

Both repressible and inducible operons control gene expression at the level of __________.

Cytoplasmic determinants __________.

The lac operon is an example of a(n) __________ operon.

A codon consists of _____ bases and specifies which _____ will be inserted into the polypeptide chain.

What does it mean when we say the genetic code is redundant?

Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into the primary structure of a polypeptide depends on specificity in the _____.

For a repressible operon to be transcribed, which of the following must occur?

How is translation initiated?

One way to detect alternative splicing of transcripts from a given gene is to _____.

What would the anticodon be for a tRNA that transports phenylalanine to a ribosome?

A particular triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is AAA. The anticodon on the tRNA that binds the mRNA codon is _____.

In the process of transcription, _____.

Which of the following is the first event to take place in translation in eukaryotes?

According to the lac operon model proposed by Jacob and Monod, what is predicted to occur if the operator is removed from the operon?

Codons are part of the molecular structure of _____.

A lack of which molecule would result in a cell’s inability to “turn off” genes?

A nonsense mutation in a gene _____.

After an RNA molecule is transcribed from a eukaryotic gene, what are removed and what are spliced together to produce an mRNA molecule with a continuous coding sequence?

DNA methylation and histone acetylation are examples of _____.

The flow of information in a cell proceeds in what sequence?

What is the function of RNA polymerase?

The mitotic spindle is a microtubular structure that is involved in _____.

Sister chromatids separate from each other during _____.

Which of the following is true of kinetochores?

In human and many other eukaryotic species’ cells, the nuclear membrane has to disappear to permit _____.

The first gap in the cell cycle (G1) corresponds to _____.

Metaphase is characterized by _____.

In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes are composed of _____.

Which of the following occurs during meiosis but not during mitosis?

A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H) and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism?

What do we mean when we use the terms monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross?

In certain plants, tall is dominant to short. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous tall plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be short?

Which of the following is the best statement of the use of the addition rule of probability?

Consider pea plants with the genotypes GgTt and ggtt . These plants can each produce how many type(s) of gametes?

Which of the following provides an example of epistasis?

In the cross AaBbCc × AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing the genotype AABBCC?

What is the function of helicase in DNA replication?

Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. Two people with normal color vision have a color-blind son. What are the genotypes of the parents?

When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F1 generation flies to each other, the F2 generation included both red- and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were male. What was the explanation for this result?

DNA replication is said to be semiconservative. What does this mean?

How does the enzyme telomerase meet the challenge of replicating the ends of linear chromosomes?

Normally, only female cats have the tortoiseshell phenotype because _____.

Cytosine makes up 42% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine?

Which of the following statements describes chromatin?