Biology Exam Questions with Answers

What two factors affects BMI of an individual?
Weight and Height
If a person wants to lose weight, which of the following are viable strategies?
Substituting water for soda; exercising more
Which of the following do not contribute to a higher BMI?
All of the above: Gender, culture, portion size, biological history
If you frequently crave French fries, how could you modify your lifestyle to eat fries without gaining weight?
exercise enough to counteract the fries you add to your diet.
Decrease the amount of fries you eat at one time.
Exclude high calorie foods from your diet when you eat fries.
If the French eat meals with a higher fat content, why don’t the French weigh more on average than Americans?
b. The French eat smaller portions.
Which type of organic molecule stores the most energy per gram?
d. fats (triglycerides)
Once excess calories are stored as triglycerides, it is more difficult to release this energy because __________.
d. the body prefers to use food in the bloodstream and stored glycogen first
Excess energy can be stored for short periods of time in the muscle and liver tissue as _______, and for long periods of time as _______ in fat cells.
b. glycogen; triglycerides
Which of the following accurately describes food with regard to energy?
A calorie is the amount of energy required to raise 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius.
Food calories are written as calories (e.g. 1,000 calories).
A moderately active 21-year-old female has a choice of eating a 2,500-Calorie meal that is primarily protein or a 2,500-calorie meal that is primarily sugar. What would be the result, in terms of energy, of choosing one over the other?
d. In either case, once her glycogen stores are replenished, she will store the excess calories as fat.
If you exercise for an extended period of time, you will use energy first from _________, then from ___________.
glycogen; fats
Why is it recommended that anyone trying to lose weight should avoid alcoholic beverages?
e. The fermentation process used to make alcohol does not fully break down glucose, resulting in a high-carbohydrate beverage.
Which process is not correctly matched with its cellular location?
a. glycolysis—cytoplasm
b. citric acid cycle—mitochondria
c. electron transport—mitochondria
d. a and b
True: E. none of the above; they are all correctly matched
In the presence of oxygen, we use __________ to fuel ATP production from glucose. What process do plants use to fuel ATP production from glucose?
b. aerobic respiration; aerobic respiration
During aerobic respiration, what molecule has (and carries) electrons stripped from food?
During aerobic respiration, how does NADH give up electrons to regenerate NAD+?
d. by giving electrons to the electron transport chain
Which of the following statements correctly reflects the interactions between aerobic respiration and photosynthesis?
All of the above:
a. The carbon in the glucose that plants make is the same carbon in the carbon dioxide we breathe out.
b. The carbon dioxide we breathe out is the same carbon in the food we eat.
c. The oxygen we use in aerobic respiration is the same oxygen produced by plants in photosynthesis.
If you ingest carbon in the form of sugar, how is that carbon released from your body?
c. as CO2
The purpose of aerobic respiration is to _______, which is used to _________.
d. create energy-rich ATP molecules; power cellular functions of the cell
Compared to aerobic respiration, fermentation produces _______ ATP.
d. much less
What process is most directly prevented in the absence of adequate oxygen?
c. electron transport chain
Where in the cell does fermentation take place?
a. cytoplasm
Fermentation in animals produces _______, whereas fermentation in brewer’s yeast produces _______.
a. lactic acid; alcohol
During fermentation, how does NADH give up electrons to regenerate NAD+?
b. by giving electrons to pyruvate
In humans, why can’t fermentation sustain life?
a. Fermentation is not efficient at using the energy sources we eat to make ATP.
b. Fermentation causes a buildup of lactic acid in our bodies.
c. Our energy demands outpace the energy from fermentation.
d. We use our cellular respiration products to control other physiological functions such as blood pH.
(e. All of the above are reasons.)
Which of the following is not a nucleotide found in DNA?
e. uracil (U)
If the sequence of one strand of DNA is AGTCTAGC, what is the sequence of the complementary strand?
In addition to the base, what are the other components of a nucleotide?
b. phosphate and sugar
The _______ chromosomes in a human cell from inside the cheek are found in the ____
d. 46; nucleus
Each chromosome contains __________.
c. DNA and proteins
You can detect DNA that is specifically from the X chromosome in a DNA sample from a person. Why can’t you definitively determine the gender of that person (male or female) from the presence of the X chromosome?
b. Both males and females have an X chromosome.
c. You would have to check for the presence of a Y chromosome.
Human red blood cells are enucleated (that is, they do not have nuclei). Is it possible to isolate DNA from red blood cells? Why or why not?
e. No, the genomic DNA is found only in nucleated cells.
DNA replication is said to be semiconservative because a newly replicated, double-stranded DNA molecules consists of _______________.
c. one old strand and one new strand
Which of the following statements about PCR is TRUE?
a. DNA polymerase is the enzyme that copies DNA in PCR.
What naturally occurring process does PCR mimic in a test tube?
d. DNA replication
If you start with one copy of a DNA fragment, how many rounds of PCR will it take to end up with a total of 32 copies?
b. 5
Complete the following statements regarding the steps necessary to copy a DNA sequence during PCR:
1) The two original strands of the DNA molecule can be separated by __________.
2) The enzyme ______________ “reads” each template strand and adds ____
e. 1) heat, 2) polymerase; complementary nucleotides
What is the purpose of careful primer design before PCR?
c. Primers must “sit” on the original DNA strand to give polymerase a place to start replication.
a. Primers dictate the specificity of the place you are amplifying.
An individual’s STR may vary from the same STR of another individual by ____
d. the number of times a particular sequence is repeated
Which of the following represents genetic variation between individuals?
b. the presence of STRs in their genomes/8
Gel electrophoresis separates DNA for profiling based on ________
b. size (length)
The entire sequence of DNA in a cell used for DNA profiling is called the __________.
c. genome
Which STR will have migrated farthest through an electrophoresis gel?
a. GAAG repeated twice
You are studying the DNA profile of an individual, and you are looking at the results for a chromosome with just one STR site. How many bands will you see?
c. either 1 or 2
Which of the following people would have DNA that is least similar to yours?
b. your mother’s brother
DNA evidence can give an investigator information regarding which of the following?
a. family relationships between suspects
b. identity of an individual based on a profile
c. locations of an individual
How many STRs are typically used to create a profile in forensic investigations?
d. 15
You are investigating a crime. The DNA profile database has no perfect matches to the DNA collected at the crime scene. However, one profile in the database has at least one band in common with the crime scene DNA at every STR site. Which of the following is the most likely conclusion can you draw?
b. A parent-child relationship exists between the DNA collected at the crime scene and the DNA in the database.
From the STRs used in a forensic investigation, which STRs on which chromosomes would be particularly useful in determining whether crime scene evidence was left by a female or a male?
b. Y chromosome STR
A protein is made up of a chain of __________.
b. amino acids
_______amino acids tend to be found folded inside a protein, whereas _______ amino acids interact with water on the outside of the protein.
b. hydrophobic; hydrophilic
What determines a protein’s function?
a. the sequence of amino acids
b. the three-dimensional shape of the folded protein
What determines how a protein folds?
a. the interaction of the shared core structure of all the amino acids in the protein
b. the interaction of the side chains of each individual amino acid
c. the interaction of the amino acids with water in the proteins environment
Which of the following accurately describe(s) amino acid side chains?
They provide unique functions to a folded protein.
They allow for the correct folding of proteins.
Heating a protein can cause it to denature, or unfold. What do you think would happen to the function of a protein in a denatured state?
c. The protein would not be functional because the three-dimensional shape dictates protein’s function.
Which of the following statements, if any, accurately describe how genes, chromosomes, and proteins are related?
None of the statements are accurate.
What is the final product of gene expression?
a protein
Which of the following statements correctly indicates a functional location?
tRNAs work in the cytoplasm.
_______is the product of transcription, and _______ is the product of translation.
mRNA; a protein
A gene has the sequence ATCGATTG. What is the sequence of the complementary RNA?
What controls the timing of gene expression?
the regulatory sequence for a gene
_______ on mRNA interact with _______ on tRNA to allow the _______ to connect amino acids in the correct order during translation.
Codons; anticodons; ribosome
State two ways in which a person can be deficient in antithrombin activity.
a mutation in the regulatory region of a gene
a mutation in the coding region of a gene
Which of the following parts of translation will be disrupted by a mutation in the coding region of a gene?
the codon on the mRNA
How do the redundant properties of the genetic code protect humans from some mutations?
Some mutations will not change the amino acid coded by the mRNA codon.
Why is recombinant protein production in the milk of transgenic animals an efficient strategy?
a. because milk is secreted, so the protein can be obtained noninvasively
b. because milk is produced in relatively large quantities
c. because mammary glands naturally secrete large quantities of proteins into milk
d. because milk is easier to obtain than other secretions (e.g., urine, sweat, and saliva)
In an antithrombin-producing transgenic goat,
c. the antithrombin gene construct is present in every cell and expressed only in mammary cells.
How did scientists alter the gene for antithrombin so that it could be isolated from milk?
a. The melanin regulatory region would allow for the specific expression of a different gene in the skin.
Why are biotechnology companies eager to design genetically modified organisms to express therapeutic proteins, particularly ones that would otherwise have to be isolated from blood products (e.g., human antithrombin) or animal organs (e.g., insulin, originally isolated from pig pancreas)?
a. Biotechnology companies want to produce therapeutic proteins in the most cost-effective way.
b. There are safety concerns when using proteins from different species or isolating proteins from humans.
c. It is difficult to collect enough of some low-abundance proteins.
What is a genetically modified organism?
any modified organism that produces a product it does not normally make
Which of the following statements about genetically modified organisms is TRUE?
Scientists can produce more complex proteins with genetically modified organisms than they can with cell cultures.
Type 1 diabetes results from a loss of insulin production from the pancreas. People with diabetes take recombinant human insulin expressed in bacteria. How would you cure the disease instead of treating it?
. Replacing the defective insulin gene in a patient through gene therapy would allow for a cure.
Following mitosis and cytokinesis, daughter cells are __________.
b. genetically identical to each other
c. genetically identical to the parent cell
In the cell cycle, DNA is replicated during _______.
c. S
Which of the following processes require normal cell division?
a. embryonic development
b. wound healing
c. replacement of blood cells
d. intestinal tract and skin cell replacement
During which stage of the cell cycle do sister chromatids separate from each other?
During which stage of the cell cycle are sister chromatids initially produced?
During which stage of the cell cycle are sister chromatids first visualized?
Which of the following series has the stages of the cell cycle in the proper order?
G1, S, G2, mitosis, cytokinesis
In which stage of the cell cycle does the cell spend the most time?
Which of the following series has the stages of mitosis in the proper order?
d. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
What would be the result if a cell completed interphase and mitosis but failed to complete cytokinesis?
You would only have one cell.
b. You would have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell.
. A normal cell that sustains irreparable DNA damage will most likely __________.
b. die by apoptosis
Which checkpoint prevents a normal cell from completing its cell cycle if it has not accurately replicated its DNA?
b. interphase (G2-M)
Which is the best definition of cancer?
c. a disease in which unregulated cell division occurs
Cell cycle checkpoints are present to _________.
a. ensure that cancer does not occur.
b. ensure that each step of the cell cycle occurs accurately.
When your skin cells are exposed to UV light, such as in a tanning bed, DNA damage can occur. If one of these severely UV-irradiated skin cells is given a signal to divide, what are plausible outcomes?
a. The cell will go through apoptosis, after the damage is detected.
Why would the cell make apoptosis the default mechanism when a problem in the cell cycle is detected?
b. Apoptosis ensures that the cell dies instead of leading to cancer.
Which of the following properties should a promising new ovarian cancer drug have?
b. blocks mitosis in cancerous cells
What are some side effects of cancer chemotherapy drugs?
a. nausea
b. diarrhea
c. hair loss
d. bone marrow cell loss
e. all of the above
Which of the following specific therapies for cancer have the correct corresponding reasons for choosing them?
a. specific chemotherapies: cancer may be resistant to some chemotherapeutic agents
b. chemotherapy: metastatic cancer may be too far spread to be treated by surgery and radiaton therapy
c. surgery: tumor mass is in one place and the surgery will not unduly harm the patient
A patient has metastatic melanoma—skin cancer. Is surgery a viable option for this patient?
b. No, because the cancerous cells have spread throughout the body.
Which types of cells are triggered to go through apoptosis by radiation and chemotherapy treatments?
e. any cell that is rapidly undergoing cell division
In the development of chemotherapeutic agents for cancer, what factors must be considered?
a. environmental costs if the agent is from a living specimen
b. production costs if the agent is rare or hard to isolate
c. side effects the drug may have on noncancerous cells
If a medically valuable drug is isolated from a rare plant, which of the following steps can be taken to ensure that the drug is made available to patients in need and that the plant is protected from overuse?
a. Try to cultivate the plant on a farm to ensure that sufficient supply is available independent of the plant in its native setting.
b. Try to find a related (and less rare) plant that produces a related compound with similar pharmaceutical activity.
c. Use the structure of the compound to try to make a completely synthetic version of the chemical compound in a lab.
d. Learn more about what the drug is doing in the body, and try to design synthetic molecules that might have the same activity.
e. all of the above
Which of the following will be important for the continued development of chemotherapeutic agents to better fight cancer?
a. identification of compounds from new species of plants and animals from varied environments
b. development of synthetic compounds that mimic naturally occurring compounds with anticancer effects
c. efficient and effective delivery of chemotherapeutic agents to individuals with cancer
d. screening systems to look for potential compounds with anticancer properties
In an otherwise normal cell, what happens if one mistake is made during DNA replication?
A cell cycle checkpoint detects the error and pauses the cell cycle so the error can be corrected.
Why does wearing sunscreen reduce cancer risk?
Sunscreen can reduce the chance of mutations caused by exposure to UV radiation present in sunlight.
A mutation can cause a change __________.
a. in the amino acid sequence of a protein
b. in the shape of a protein
c. in the way the cell cycle is regulated
d. that is beneficial to the cell
At which of the following points does a mutation exert its potentially dysfunctional effects in a cell?
after a protein is produced
DNA mutations can arise from uncorrected errors in DNA replication, inheritance, and __________.
environmental insults
If an individual has a germline mutation, which of the following are possible sources of that mutation?
b. a maternal allele
c. a paternal allele
How does a somatic mutation in a gene alter the function of a cell?
d. Base pair mutations in a gene are passed directly into mRNA via transcription.
A potential cancer-causing gene coding for a protein with cell cycle control responsibilities is a ___________, and a gene coding for a protein that stimulates cell division is a ___________.
c. tumor suppressor; proto-oncogene
What is the role of BRCA1 in normal cells?
c. BRCA1 acts as a tumor suppressor.
10. Which of the following does not cause cancer to develop and progress?
a. a proto-oncogene
c. a tumor suppressor gene
A chemical that causes alterations in DNA is a ______________, and if this chemical causes cancer it is called a _______________.
. mutagen; carcinogen
Tumors that will not spread throughout the body are _________________, and those that do spread are termed ______________.
b. benign; malignant
Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer development?
It is a multistep process by which multiple mutations cause a series of events that lead to cancer.
What would you say to a niece if she asked you how she could reduce her risk of breast cancer? (Assume there is no family history of breast cancer.)
a. Reduce sun exposure.
b. Reduce alcohol consumption.
c. Avoid tobacco.
d. Utilize early screening.
Why is age a risk factor for cancer?
Age extends the amount of exposures to environmental factors, which can lead to the progression of cancer.
We would all have many more mutations in our genes if not for the __________.
a. activity of proofreading enzymes
Which is the correct order of events in which breast cancer might develop?
d. inheritance of a mutant BRCA gene > replication errors create an oncogene > mutation of p53 > additional mutations permit spreading
Which of these statements about decreasing a woman’s breast cancer risk if she inherits one of the mutant BRCA genes is TRUE?
a. Diet and lifestyle changes will effectively decrease her risk to near zero.
b. She can take several medications that make it almost impossible to get breast cancer, even if she inherits the BRCA gene.
c. Surgical removal of the breasts will decrease a woman’s cancer risk to near zero.
d. A woman cannot decrease her cancer risk, so she might as well live life to its fullest.
e. None of the above is true.
A woman with a BRCA1 mutation __________.
b. is at increased risk of developing breast cancer
Which of the following family histories most strongly suggests a risk of inherited breast cancer due to BRCA1 mutations?
d. many female relatives diagnosed with breast cancer at an early age
Why do people with “inherited cancer” often develop cancer at a relatively young age?

a. Predisposition increases the chances that other risk factors will lead to the progression of cancer.

c. Cancer cannot be truly inherited, but certain alleles weaken the normal control points that prevent cancer, and this causes cancer to appear earlier in life

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Which of the following women would be most likely to benefit from genetic testing for breast cancer?
a 25-year-old woman whose mother, aunt, and grandmother had breast cancer

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Biology Exam Questions with Answers. (2017, Dec 26). Retrieved from